GCU NURS631 Mid Term Exam

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GCU NURS631 Mid Term Exam

1. What is
an example of compensatory hyperplasia

2. What
causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate and
action potential.

3. What type
of necrosis is often associated with pulmonary tuberculosis.

4. Low
plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure.

5. When a
child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from

6. Describe
the chromosomal defect related to Prader Willi syndrome.

7. What
mechanism can cause hypernatremia

a. Caused by
loss of H20, DM Insufficient H20 intake,

b. Hypertonic

c. Over
secretion of Aldosterone

d. Cushing
Syndrome because of adrenocorticotropic hormone

8. What are
the cause of hyperkalemia

9. What are
likely causes of respiratory acidosis

a. Depress
of respiratory center, disorder of the lung parenchyma, alveolar
hypoventilation C02 is retained increase in H+, Co2 excess in blood

b. Over
sedation, brainstem trauma

c. Pulmonary
edema, emphysema, asthma, bronchitis

d. Acute
airway obstruction- does not affect renal buffer mechanism

e. Chronic
COPD-renal compensation is effective and established

10. When
considering white blood cell differentials, acute inflammatory reactions are
related to elevations of what leukocyte

11. In which
structure do B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to
becoming B cells

12. Which
immunoglobulins is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory

13. Which T
cell control our limits in the immune response to protect the host own tissue
against an autoimmune response

14. The common
hay fever allergy is expressed through a rxn that is mediated by class of

15. How many
months does it take for the newborn to sufficiently protected by antibodies
produced by its own B cells

16. A person
with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type)
blood contains with of the following

17. Cytokines
are thought to cause fevers by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical

18. Which
cells are primary target for HIV?

19. The
mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarilyas a consequence of what type
of hormonal event

20. Perceived
stress elicits an emotional anticipatory response that begins where

21. The most
common site for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location

22. Where is
the neurotransmitter norepinephrine secreted?

23. Thyroid
stimulating (TSH) is released to stimulate the thyroid hormone and is inhibited
when plasma levels are adequate. What is this an example of

24. What is
the action of calcitonin

25. Aldosterone
directly increases the reabsorption of what

26. Which
laboratory value would the APRN expect to find if a person is experiencing
syndrome inappropriateantidiuretic hormone

27. What are
visual disturbances a result of pituitary adenoma

28. Which
disorder is caused by hypersecretion of GH in adults?

29. How is the
level of thyroid stimulating hormone in individuals with graves’ Disease

30. What are
clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism

31. A patient
dx with DKA has the following lab values PH 7.20, serum glucose 500mg/dl,
+ketones, serum K+ 2mcg/L, Serum Na+ 130 mEq/L.
The patient reports that he has been sick with the flu for 1 week. What relationship do those values have to his
insulin deficiency?

32. When is
hypoglycemia followed by reboundhyperglycemia observed in patients

33. A person
has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, truncal obesity. The clinical
manifestations are indicative of which endocrine diagnosis

34. A person
may experience which complications as a result of a reduction in parathyroid

35. Which
nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of DNA and the maturation of

36. Which type
of anemia is characterized by fatigue, weakness, dyspnea as well as conjunctiva
of the eyes and brittle concave nails

37. In
infectious monocleosis (IM) what does the monospot test detect

38. Vitamin K
is required for normal clotting factor synthesis by what

39. How is
erythroblastosis fetalis defined

40. Which type
of anemia occurs as a result of thalassemia

41. Which
factor is responsible for hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with HTN

42. What is
the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone

43. A family
friend shows a recent lab report, he would like you to interpret the findings.
Lab values show hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase,
and PTH. What is the cause of this this
and risks for

44. Why don’t
patient with type 2 DM generally develop ketoacidosis

45. You have
diagnosed your patient with DI. In order to determine the causative area, the
patient is given an ADH like medication. The lab reports this resulted in an
increase urine osmolarity. What diagnose would give this patient

46. What are
the earliest signs of diabetic neuropathy

47. A patient
has just beendiagnosed with hypothyroidism by her physician. According to the
lab reports it is determined to secondary hypothyroidism. What results support
the finding

48. Where is
the region responsible for motor aspects of speech located?

49. Why is
status elipiticus considered a medical emergency

50. Tremors at
rest, rigidity, akinesia and postural abnormalities are a result of the atrophy
of neurons in what part of the brain

51. A
herniation of which disk will likely result in motor and sensory changes of the
lateral lower legs and soles of the feet

52. Which
condition poses the highest risk for a CVA

53. A man who
sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 day ago suddenly develops severe HTN
and bradycardia. He reports server head
pain and blurred vision. What is the
most likely explanation for the clinical manifestations

54. Gillian
Barre syndrome is proceeded by a viral illness

55. In which
disorder are acetylcholine receptor antibodies (IgG) produced

56. Antipsychotic
drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor

57. What will
an infant diagnosed with hydrocephalus be observed to demonstrate?

58. Your
patient tells your that she has been waking up for days with severe right-side
HA, unilateral lacrimation, and nasal congestion. What is the dx

59. Bells
Palsy is due to an inflammation of the what cranial nerve

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